General Class Exam Question Pool- Subelement G-2

Subelement G-1           Subelement G-2          Subelement G-3          Subbelement G-4          Subelement G-5
Subelement G-6           Subelement G-7          Subelement G-8          Subbelement G-9          Subelement G-0

SUBELEMENT G2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups]

 

 

G2A - Phone operating procedures; USB/LSB conventions; procedural signals; breaking into a contact; VOX operation

 

 

G2A01

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A. Upper sideband

B. Lower sideband

C. Vestigial sideband

D. Double sideband

~~

 

 

G2A02

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

A. Upper sideband

B. Lower sideband

C. Vestigial sideband

D. Double sideband

~~

 

 

G2A03  

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

A. Upper sideband

B. Lower sideband

C. Vestigial sideband

D. Double sideband

~~

 

 

G2A04  

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

A. Upper sideband 

B. Lower sideband

C. Vestigial sideband

D. Double sideband

~~

 

 

G2A05  

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands? 

A. Frequency modulation 

B. Double sideband 

C. Single sideband 

D. Phase modulation 

~~

 

 

G2A06  

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

A. Very high fidelity voice modulation 

B. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency 

C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

D. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes 

~~

 

 

G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode? 

A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed 

C. SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands

D. SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter amateur bands 

~~

 

 

G2A08

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?

A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign

B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations

C. Say "Break Break Break" and wait for a response 

D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

~~

 

 

G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

~~

 

 

G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

A. The received signal is more natural sounding

B. It allows "hands free" operation

C. It occupies less bandwidth

D. It provides more power output

~~

 

 

G2A11

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?

A. A general call for any station

B. The caller is listening for a station in Germany 

C. The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

D. A distress call

~~

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

G2B - Operating courtesy; band plans; emergencies, including drills and emergency communications

 

 

G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

A. Nets always have priority

B. QSOs in progress always have priority

C. Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies 

D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

~~

 

 

G2B02  

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

A. Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first

B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

C. Change to a different frequency

D. Immediately cease all transmissions

~~

 

 

G2B03

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency 

B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator 

C. As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency 

D. Increase power to overcome interference

~~

 

 

G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A. 5 to 50 Hz 

B. 150 to 500 Hz 

C. 1 to 3 kHz 

D. 3 to 6 kHz 

~~

 

 

G2B05 

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

A. Between 150 and 500 Hz 

B. Approximately 3 kHz 

C. Approximately 6 kHz 

D. Approximately 10 kHz 

~~

 

 

G2B06

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ 

C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response or say "test" several times and listen for a response

D. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then give your call and listen for a response

~~

 

 

G2B07  

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

A. Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station

B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

C. Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use

D. All of these choices are correct

~~

 

 

G2B08

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States 

B. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions in that portion of the band 

C. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band 

D. A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only 

~~

 

 

G2B09  [97.407(a)] 

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

B. Only a RACES net control operator

C. A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

~~

 

 

G2B10  [97.407(b)] 

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

D. When the President’s War Emergency Powers have been invoked

~~

 

 

G2B11  [97.405] 

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A. Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

B. Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations

C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges

D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

~~

 

 

G2B12  [97.405(b)] 

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

A. Only when transmitting in RACES 

B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net

C. At any time during an actual emergency

D. Only on authorized HF frequencies

~~

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

G2C - CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals and common abbreviations: full break in

 

 

G2C01  

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

~~

 

 

G2C02  

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

A. Send slower

B. Change frequency

C. Increase your power

D. Repeat everything twice

~~

 

 

G2C03  

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

A. Listening for novice stations

B. Operating full break-in

C. Listening only for a specific station or stations

D. Closing station now

~~

 

 

G2C04  

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

A. "Will you keep the frequency clear?" 

B. "Are you operating full break-in" or "Can you operate full break-in?"

C. "Are you listening only for a specific station?" 

D. "Are you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?"

~~

 

 

G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying

B. The speed at which the CQ was sent

C. A slow speed until contact is established

D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

~~

 

 

 

G2C06

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station

B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

C. Sending without error

D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

~~

 

 

G2C07

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

A. Chirpy or unstable signal

B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

C. 100 percent copy

D. Key clicks

~~

 

 

G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW? 

A. SK 

B. BK 

C. AR

D. KN

~~

 

 

G2C09

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

A. Send slower

B. We have already confirmed by card

C. I acknowledge receipt

D. We have worked before

~~

 

 

G2C10  

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

A. Send more slowly

B. I am troubled by static

C. Zero beat my signal

D. Stop sending

~~

 

 

G2C11

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

A. You are sending too fast

B. There is interference on the frequency

C. I am quitting for the day

D. I am ready to receive messages

~~

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

G2D - Amateur Auxiliary; minimizing interference; HF operations

 

 

G2D01

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations 

B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations 

C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters 

D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency 

~~

 

 

G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations 

B. To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators 

C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage 

D. To provide emergency and public safety communications 

~~

 

 

G2D03

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary? 

A. Identification of out of band operation 

B. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

C. Identification of different call signs 

D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies 

~~

 

 

 

G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

A. A map that shows accurate land masses

B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location 

C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator 

D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit 

~~

 

 

G2D05  [97.111(a)(1)] 

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC

B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English

D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union

~~

 

 

G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

A. Toward the rising sun 

B. Along the gray line 

C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading

D. Toward the north

~~

 

G2D07  [97.303(i)] 

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked 

C. You must keep a record of all third party traffic

D. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

~~

 

 

 

G2D08

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts

B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic

C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest 

D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

~~

 

 

G2D09

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

A. Date and time of contact

B. Band and/or frequency of the contact 

C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given 

D. All of these choices are correct

~~

 

 

G2D10  

What is QRP operation?

A. Remote piloted model control

B. Low power transmit operation

C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

D. Traffic relay procedure net operation

~~

 

 

G2D11

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna

B. An isotropic antenna 

C. A directional antenna

D. An omnidirectional antenna

~~

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

G2E - Digital operating: procedures, procedural signals and common abbreviations

 

 

G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

A. USB

B. DSB

C. CW

D. LSB

~~

 

 

 

G2E02

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?
A. Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
B. Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
C. Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
D. Send the message: "Is this frequency in use?"
~~

 

G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

A. Frequent retries or timeouts

B. Long pauses in message transmission

C. Failure to establish a connection between stations

D. All of these choices are correct 

~~

 

 

G2E04

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?

A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz

B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

~~

 

 

G2E05

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

A. LSB

B. USB

C. DSB

D. SSB

~~

 

 

G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A. 85 Hz

B. 170 Hz

C. 425 Hz

D. 850 Hz

~~

 

 

G2E07

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

A. 3570 – 3600 kHz

B. 3500 – 3525 kHz

C. 3700 – 3750 kHz

D. 3775 – 3825 kHz

~~

 

 

G2E08  

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

~~

 

 

G2E09 
How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?
A. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D. Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station has to pause
~~

 

G2E10   

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?
A. Send an email to the system control operator 

B. Send QRL in Morse code 

C. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID 

D. Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency 

~~

 

G2E11  

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

A. Long Path propagation

B. Backscatter propagation

C. Insufficient modulation

D. Overmodulation

~~

 

 

G2E12

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

B. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

~~

 

 

G2E13

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?

A. Winlink

B. RTTY

C. ARES

D. Skywarn

~~

 

 

G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even
though it is apparently tuned in properly?
A. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband 

D. All of these choices are correct 

~~

Subelement G-1           Subelement G-2          Subelement G-3          Subbelement G-4          Subelement G-5
Subelement G-6           Subelement G-7          Subelement G-8          Subbelement G-9          Subelement G-0